Biology 207 - Exam 1
1. When were the bacteria responsible for most of the
major bacterial diseases were isolated and described?
2. Why does a bacterium produce chains of cells?
Clusters? Cubes? Flat sheets?
3. What were the major contributions of Lister?
Pasteur? Koch? Semmelweis? Berkeley?
4. Who developed the use of solid media for
isolation of bacteria?
5. Which cell components of procaryotes are not
found in eucaryotic cells?
6. In what ways are procaryotic cells similar to
eucaryotic cells? How are they different?
7. Which microorganisms are procaryotes?
Which are eucaryotes?
8. What are the dimensions of a typical rod-shaped
bacterial cell?
9. What is the maximum usable magnification of the
light microscope? Electron microscope (TEM)?
10. What is Appertization?
11. A bacterium is said to be a coccus if its shape is _?
12. Semmelweis was an important figure in the history
of microbiology because ______?
13. Mitochondria are bacterial endosymbionts of
eucaryotic cells. What is their function?
14. Why was Koch an important figure in the history
of microbiology?
15. A germicide which can safely be applied to human
skin is called ______?
16. A germicide which cannot safely be applied to human
skin, but is useful to sanitize inanimate surfaces, is a _____?
17. Most of the useful antibiotics are produced by
microorganisms found in _____?
18. If cells are suspended in a salt solution which is
lower in total solute concentration than the cytoplasm
of the cells, the salt solution is said to be ______?
Higher? Equal?
19. Describe the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria,
compared to gram-positive bacteria.
20. How could you determine the number of living
bacteria in a sample?
21. The mass of a filamentous fungus (a mold) in a
sample may be determined _____.
22. What is a eurythermal organism? Stenothermal?
24. A psychrophilic bacterium has a growth optimum at _____.
25. A mesophilic bacterium has a growth optimum at _____.
26. A thermophilic bacterium has a growth optimum at _____.
27. Growth factor analogs, such as sulfanilamide, are
sometimes useful as chemotherapeutic agents.
Sulfanilamide acts by substituting for _____.
28. In the first phase of the standard bacterial growth
curve, the cells adapt to the conditions to which they
have been introduced. This part of the curve is
called the _____.
29. In the second phase of the standard bacterial growth
curve, the cells grow at their maximum rate for the
existing conditions. This part of the curve is called the _____.
30. In the third phase of the standard bacterial growth
curve, the cells quit growing and the population is stable.
This part of the curve is called the _____.
31. There are many different kinds of bacteria. What
proportion of them are pathogenic to humans?
32. An "average" bacterium weighs about a picagram
(10-3 nanograms, or 10-12 grams). Thus, a million of
them would weigh approximately _____.
33. A micrometer is equal to ___ nanometer;
___ millimeters; ___ meter.
34. One hundred thousand microliters are equal to _ ml.
35. In scientific notation, 988,000,000,000 is ______.
36. In scientific notation, 0.000000000056 is ______.
37. Why is milk usually pasteurized prior to consumption?
38. A reasonable temperature to pasteurize milk in bulk
processing is ___?
39. What is a fungistatic chemical agent?
A bacteriolytic agent? An algicidal agent?
40. What is an etiological agent of a disease?
41. What characteristics of Staphylococcus aureus
enable it to colonize human skin?
42. How do osmophiles differ from halophiles?
43. Which microorganisms grow best with low available water?
44. An organism which can grow under high hydrostatic
pressure is said to be a _____?
45. What are the functions of pili?
46. What are the functions of the glycocalyx?
47. How are bacterial pili similar to flagella?
48. The cytoplasmic membrane consists primarily of __?
49. What is the primary structure of a protein?
50. Peptidoglycan, a polymer found only in bacteria,
is located in the _____?
51. What is a glycocalyx?
52. Bacteria which have flagella over the entire surface
are said to be _____.
53. Bacteria which have a flagellum on one end of the
cell are said to be _____.
54. How does lysozyme affect a bacterial cell?
55. What is the most unique characteristic of the
bacterial endospore?
56. What is the function of gas vessicles in bacteria?
57. Inclusion bodies of bacteria, in general,
function as _____.
58. Penicillin acts by _____.
59. The nonpolar component of the membrane,
which allows it to function as a barrier to the
movement of water-soluble materials, is _____.
60. What best describes the similarity in structure
between pili and flagella?
Biology 207, Exam 2 Study Questions
1. Define the term "Recombinant DNA".
2. How are new genes introduced into plants.
3. What is the function of restriction endonucleases in
nature? How are they used in genetic engineering?
4. What is the activity of DNA ligase? How is it used
in genetic engineering?
5. How are genes for antibiotic resistance exchanged
between bacteria?
6. Genetic engineering has been used to make virus
vaccines. Explain how this is done.
7. How do the cytochromes function in respiration?
8. Which genera of bacteria produce endospores?
9. What are the general characteristics of the psittacosis
group of Chlamydias?
10. How do mitochondria function in eucaryotic cells?
11. What is bacterial conjugation? Transduction?
Transformation?
12. What are the base pairing rules for DNA?
13. What are plasmids?
14. Define: gene therapy, genetic engineering.
15. Define: homozygous dominant, homozygous
recessive, heterozygous.
16. Given a nucleotide sequence, be able to write the
corresponding messinger and transfer RNAs, as
well as the complementary DNA strand.
17. Describe the structure of DNA?
18. Define: haploid, diploid.
19. What is a mutation? A mutagenic agent?
20. Which type of metabolism would a facultative
bacterium use in the presence of oxygen?
Without oxygen?
21. How would a facultative organism survive if it had
a mutation in one of its cytochromes?
22. given the option, why will a microorganism respire
rather than ferment?
23. What is the major fermentation product of the
streptococci?
24. What is the terminal electron acceptor in the
lactic acid fermentation?
25. What bacterial species causes Group A Beta-hemolytic
Strep infections?
26. Which bacterium initiates dental caries?
27. The etiological agent of puerperal sepsis, scarlet
fever, and rheumatic fever is ______.
28. The etiological agent of diphtheria is ________.
29. What are the components of the DPT?
30. Which disease does Bordetella pertussis cause?
31. Several members of a Boy Scout camp had developed
flu-like symptoms. A few developed severe headaches,
and two died despite hospitilization. The most likely
cause of the outbreak is _______.
32. What is the incubation period for Mycobacterium
tuberculosis? Mycobacterium leprae?
33. What causes the most common type of bacterial
pneumonia?
34. What is a nosocomial infection? Which respiratory
infections are usually secondary or nosocomial?
35. What are the physical characteristics of
Corynebacterium diphtheriae? Which other bacteria
share these characteristics?
36. What causes Q fever?
37. Under what conditions does the bacterium which
causes Legionnaire's disease usually develop?
How does the disease spread?
38. The most serious form of foodborne intoxication
is caused by ______.
39. If a gram stain of a food sample implicated in a case
of foodborne intoxication shows large numbers of
gram positive cocci in clusters, the cause is likely ___.
40. What are the symptoms of clostridial food poisoning?
Staphylococcal food poisoning? Botulism? What are
the incubation times for each? The prognoses for
recovery from each?
41. How do the symptoms and severity of typhoid fever
differ from other enteric infections?
42. Which bacterium causes typhoid fever?
43. For which of the enteric diseases do we have
effective vaccines?
44. What causes a type of foodborne intestinal disease
featuring an aerobic gram-positive endospore
forming rods in starchy foods?
45. The virus which is the most serious problem as a
waterborne pathogen causes _____.
46. Amebiasis (amebic dysentery) is the result of intestinal
infection by ______.
47. Name a common cilliate protozoan intestinal infection,
which may be contracted by drinking contaminated water.
48. Describe the organism which causes Schistomiasis.
49. Describe the life cycle of Shistosoma japonicum.
50. Which bacterial intestinal infection is primarily
characterized by massive and life-threatening diarrhea?
51. What causes an intestinal infection which is most
commonly from eating raw fish?
52. The etiological agent of anthrax is ______.
53. How does tetanus toxin act?
54. Describe the etiological agent of leptospirosis.
55. Describe how a Listeria monocytogenes outbreak
might occur. Cite the case which we studied.
56. Melioidosis is caused by a gram negative polarly
flagellated rod named ______.
57. The common vector of Bubonic plague from wild
rodents to humans is ______.
58. Describe the symptoms of tularemia. How might one
contract the disease?
59. Which medically important bacteria are often
categorized by Lancefield serological groups?
60. Describe the organisms which cause coccidiomycosis,
cryptococcosis, blastomycosis, aspergillosis, histoplasmosis.
61. Describe the etiology of the common cold.
62. What serious complications can follow recovery
from influenza?
63. Define: epidemic, endemic, pandemic.
64. Why have we not developed effective vaccination
for the common cold?
65. What is the toxin which causes the pink to red skin
color in scarlet fever? How does the toxin act?
66. How are the agents of psittacosis, Q-fever, and
chlamydial pneumonia alike?
67. Which group of people is most likely to contract
respiratory syncytial disease?
68. Undulant fever is better known as ______.
Yet another name for it is ______.
69. How are Nagleria and Entamoeba alike?
70. "Stomach flu" is caused by ______.
Exam 3 Study Questions
1. The etiologic agent of Lyme disease is ________.
2. What are the symptoms of Lyme disease?
What is the vector?
3. The etiologic agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is ...
4. The etiologic agent of typhus fever is….
5. What are the characteristics of the bacterium which
causes typhus fever? What diseases are caused by
similar bacteria?
6. Which disease is characterized by a high fever and
a maculopapular rash spreading from the palms and
soles to the body trunk?
7. A disease characterized by a fever and a "bulls eye"
rash spreading from the entry site is ___.
8. Name four diseases caused by rickettsias.
9. What is the preferred antibiotic for typhus & Rocky
Mt. Spotted fever? Why is penicillin not used?
10. If a patient suffers from a coma, and has hemoflagellates
in his blood, what is the likely disease?
11. Why are antibiotics not used for treatment of
hemoflagellate diseases? Is effective treatment available?
12. Which disease is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?
13. What is the vector of African Sleeping Sickness?
South American Sleeping Sickness? Leishmaniasis?
14. What is the proper name for "black fever."
15. Which diseases are caused by protozoan parasites?
16. What is the vector for malaria? How is it treated?
17. For which of the protozoan diseases has a
vaccine been developed?
18. Why is yellow fever so named?
19. When traveling in endemic areas, how can one
avoid yellow fever?
20. What is the name of the group of viruses which
includes yellow fever, dengue fever, & St. Louis
encephalitis?
21. Which virus diseases can be transmitted from
horses to humans by mosquitoes?
22. What are the different stages of syphilis?
Which stage is treatable with antibiotics?
23. What is the greatest hazard of untreated gonorrhea
in females?
24. Why are the eyes of newborns treated with silver
nitrate or antibiotics?
25. What are the general characteristics of chlamydias?
26. Which STD is characterized by a circular purplish
ulcer with hard raised edges at the site of entry
into the body?
27. Which STD features the development of gumma
lesions in untreated cases?
28. What is the etiologic agent of venereal warts?
29. Which virus disease develops so slowly that
immunization is given after infection?
30. Which STD is caused by a bacterium which
lacks a cell wall?
31. Hemophilis ducreyi is a small gram negative rod
which causes _________________.
32. The causative agent of Brazilian Purpuric Fever is…
33. Name three species of bacteria which are acid-fast.
34. What are the symptoms of leprosy? How is it treated?
35. What are the characteristics of the bacterium which
causes yaws? What other diseases are caused by
similar bacteria?
36. Scalded skin syndrome and impetigo are caused by...
37. The etiologic agent of toxic shock syndrome is...
38. Dental caries are initiated by which bacterial species?
Under what conditions do caries develop?
39. Cold sores and genital sores are the result of
infection by which virus?
40. What is the usual cause of death in rabies?
41. Which bacterium causes trachoma?
42. What is the correct term for "pinkeye?"
43. Which bacterium causes Madura Foot?
How does one catch the disease?
44. What disease is caused by Actinomyces israelii?
45. Define the term "endogenous bacterial disease."
46. What disease is the most important complication
of dog bites?
47. Describe the agent of cat scratch fever.
48. What are the symptoms of rat bite fever?
49. What is the correct name for "trench mouth?"
50. Which serious viral disease is now considered extinct?
51. What is the usual cause of death in AIDS patients?
52. Which human cells are infected by HIV?
53. What is the most prominent characteristic of
primary syphilis?
54. The organism which causes leprosy is closely related
to which other pathogen?
55. Trachoma and lymphogranuloma venereum are
both caused by a species of the genus ___.
56. Pseudomembranous colitis is the result of release
of toxins during infections by _______.
57. How does one treat an advanced case of rabies?
What is the prognosis?
58. Which wild animals in this area are most likely to be
asymptomatic carriers of rabies virus?
59. Since there is an effective prophylactic vaccine for
rabies, why isn't everyone vaccinated?
60. Which species of yeast causes common problems in
humans (eg. thrush, vulvovaginitis)?
61. The group of fungi which utilize keratin and often
infect the skin are called _________.
62. What is the name of the antifungal antibiotic used to
treat ringworm and other skin infections?
63. Name the protozoan which commonly causes human
vaginal infections.
64. Which of the serious diseases are carried by ticks?
65. In this area, deer tick bites are hazardous because
they are vectors of ____________.
66. Describe the type of wound most likely to develop
gas gangrene.
67. How are Leptospirosis, tularemia and murine typhus alike?
68. Yellow fever, dengue fever, and St. Louis
encephalitis are alike in that they are caused by __.
69. The etiological agent of malaria is one of three
species of the genus ____________.
70. The infectious virus particle, which is transferred
between host cells, is called a _______________.
71. Viruses in a sample may be counted by plaque assay.
What is a plaque?
72. What is a virus capsid? A capsomere?
73. What is the general range of sizes of viruses?
74. What is a temperate virus?
75. In all temperate viruses, the genetic information is
encoded in DNA. Why?
76. Define the following as they pertain to temperate
viruses: prophage, latent infection, lysogenic.
77. Why is treatment of a virus infection with
antibiotics useless?
78. What is interferon? What cells produce it?
How is it used clinically?
79. Viruses can occasionally overwhelm the host organism.
The number of new virions released when a
virus-infected cell is killed is __________?
80. Describe transduction. Which class of viruses are
capable of specialized (or specific) transduction?
81. Compromised patients sometimes develop
nocardiosis from infection Nocardia asteroides.
What are the usual symptoms?
82. When one becomes immune to a virus (by
immunization or recovery from infection),
antibodies are made to which component?
83. Define the following virus terms: ARBO virus,
neurotrophic virus, temperate virus, virulent virus.
84. Which types of people are most likely to die
of toxoplasmosis?
85. Children sometimes develop a deadly hemorrhagic
fever subsequent to recovery from a case of pinkeye.
The agent is _______________.
86. A variety of diseases are caused by herpes virus,
including cold sores, encephalitis, gingivostomatitis,
skin lesions, and keratitis. What is herpes keratitis?
87. Which human viruses are temperate?
88. Why is herpes simplex a good prospect as a vector
in human gene therapy?
89. Borreliosis is also known as _______________.
90. What is the cause of death from malaria (ie. How
does a Plasmodium infection do enough damage to kill?)?
Exam 4 Study Questions
1. The infectious virus particle, which is transferred
between host cells, is called a _______.
2. Viruses in a sample may be counted by a plaque
assay. What is a plaque?
3. What is a virus capsid? A capsomere?
4. What is the general range of sizes of viruses?
5. What is a temperate virus?
6. In all temperate viruses, the genetic information is
encoded in DNA. Why?
7. Define the following as they pertain to temperate
viruses: prophage, latent infection, lysogenic.
8. Why is treatment of a virus infection with
antibiotics useless?
9. What is interferon? What cells produce it?
How is it used clinically?
10. Viruses can occasionally overwhelm the host organism.
The number of new virions released when a
virus-infected cell is killed is __________?
11. Describe transduction. Which class of viruses are
capable of specialized (or specific) transduction?
12. When one becomes immune to a virus (by immunization
or recovery from infection), antibodies are made to
which component of the virion?
13. Define the following virus terms: ARBO virus,
neurotrophic virus, temperate virus, virulent virus.
14. Which human viruses are temperate?
15. Why is herpes simplex a good prospect as a vector
in human gene therapy?
16. Define the following terms:
Infection, Pathogenicity, Virulence
Noscomial, Attenuated, Invasiveness
17. How do primary pathogens differ from secondary pathogens?
18. A pathogen must be able to adhere to its target
tissue. How does Neisseria gonorrhoeae adhese to the
mucus membranes of the urogenital tract?
19. What is the danger of indescriminate use of antibiotics?
20. Production of fibrinolytic enzymes allows some
pathogenic bacteria to dissolve fibrin clots, which
otherwise would wall trap the pathogen, to invade the host.
Which fibrinolytic enzymes are used clinically to treat
blood clotting problems like stroke?
21. Some bacteria are successful pathogens because they
wall themselves off, to form a localized infection.
How does Staphylococcus aureus accomplish this?
22. What is a bacterial exotoxin?
23. What is a bacterial endotoxin?
24. Which are more potent, exotoxins or endotoxins?
25. A culture of a pathogen which is grown under
conditions such that it is no longer capable of causing
disease is said to be _____?
26. An infection that is acquired in a hospital situation
is said to be ________?
27. Some pathogenic bacteria avoid destruction by host
phagocytes by producing leukocidins which kill the
phagocytes. Such bacteria are said to be ______?
28. Define the following terms:
phagocytic, pyrogenic, pyogenic, proteolytic,
glycocalyx, fimbriae
29. Streptococcus pneumoniae, which causes
streptococcal pneumonia, is a classic example of an
organism which is able to avoid phagocytosis by
means of its ______?
30. In the inflamatory response, fever results when
phagocytes release a protein called the endogenous
pyrogen. Of what value is the fever to the host?
31. Describe the incubation period following infection.
32. Describe the prodromal period following infection.
33. Describe the acute period following infection.
34. Define the following terms
serum, antigen, plasma, gamma globulin
antiserum, pooled gamma globulin, antitoxin,
acquired immunity, antibody, toxoid
35. Where do the B-cells and T-cells of the immune
system originate? Where do they mature?
36. Upon entry of a pathogen into the blood of the
host, what is the first step in the immune response?
37. The function of the B-cells in the immune response is…
38. The function of the T-cells in the immune response is…
39. What is the fate of the B-cells after cloning is
stimulated by T-cells?
40. What is the function of the plasma cells in the
immune response?
41. What is the function of the memory cells in the
immune response?
42. In passive immunization the patient is injected with …
43. In active immunization the patient is injected with…
44. Why does a secondary, or booster, immunization
usually result in a much higher level of protection
than from the initial injection of a vaccine?
45. How can an animal recieve
naturally acquired active immunity?
artificially acquired active immunity?
naturally acquired passive immunity?
artificially acquired passive immunity?
46. What is an anamnestic response?
47. How does tetanus toxin affect the body?
48. How does botulism toxin affect the body?
49. How do bacterial enterotoxins cause diarrhea?
50. What is the function of blood platelets?
51. Describe how endotoxin shock may result from a
gram negative bacterial infection.
52. Hemolysins are enzymes which act by _____?
53. Serum proteins can be separated into four major
fractions by electrophoresis. The immunoglobulins
are found in which fraction?
54. Which of the immunoglobulin types accounts for
about 80% of the antibodies?
55. Which immunoglobulin binds to mast cells,
producing allergic reactions?
56. Which immunoglobulin can pass through membranes,
thus appearing in secretions?
57. Define the following terms:
endemic, epidemic, pandemic,
systemic infection, localized infection.
EXAM 4 EXTRA QUESTIONS
1. How can the culture conditions for growth of the yeast
Saccharomyces cerevisiae be manipulated to yield
yeast cells, rather than alcohol? How could one
encourage alcohol production?
2. Vinegar is produced by microorganisms. What is vinegar?
3. What are the basic steps in cheese production?
4. In the industrial production of fuel alcohol,
saccharification of polysaccharide carbon sources
is necessary as the first step. Why?
5. What is the advantage of algae, rather than molds
or bacteria, as food?
6. In non-scientific (or pseudo-scientific) circles, one
may encounter advocates of vitamin overdose.
The practice of vitamin overdose is particularly hazardous
in the case of the fat-soluble vitamins because _______.
7. Relatively large amounts of certain vitamins are produced
from microorganisms. These vitamins are used
primarily (ie. in largest amounts) in _________.
8. Relatively few amino acids are industrially produced
in large quantity. Which ones are produced in the
largest amounts? How are they used?
9. How are oxidases used in the food canning industry?
10. What are the industrial applications of alkaline
proteases?
11. Explain how proteases are used in meat tenderization?
How are they used in bakeries?
12. Describe a septic tank, and explain how it works.
13. What are oxidation ponds?
14. Compare and contrast trickling filters, oxidation
ponds, septic tanks, and the activated sludge process.
15. Define: primary sludge, secondary sludge, primary
effluent, secondary effluent, leach field, biomagnification